Why didn't the Romans contribute much to mathematics?
180 points by curtis 5 years ago | 191 comments- olooney 5 years agoRomans aren't the outlier here. Most ancient civilizations had a similar level of accomplishment; a one or two outstanding mathematicians every century, a few practical applications, some new rules of thumb. We did have a dark age, after the Romans after all, which likewise produced little (not none) new math.
The question should rather be, what made the Greeks (and, later, others who adopted their deductive, axiomatic method) so exceptionally productive at mathematics?
Or to paraphrase Wigner, why is Hellenistic mathematics so unreasonably effective?
- crooked-v 5 years ago> We did have a dark age, after the Romans after all, which likewise produced little (not none) new math.
Use of the term "dark age" is both dramatically inaccurate in many ways [1] and totally elides everything that happened outside of Europe, such as the establishment of algebra as an independent field of mathematical study (AD 800 in Baghdad), the creation of algebraic geometry (AD 1070 in Persia), and the discovery of ways to solve high-order polynomial equations (approximately AD 1200 in India and China).
[1]: https://slate.com/human-interest/2015/01/medieval-history-wh...
Edit: Fixed a location.
- steve19 5 years agoYes but the Dark Age specifically refers to Western Europe, in much the same way the disastrous impact of the Mongol Empire on Islamic scholarship, for example the burning of libraries during or after the Siege of Baghdad, barely touched Western Europe. Chances are the Mongols destroyed some advanced mathematics that took centuries to rediscover.
- kennywinker 5 years agoThe dark ages simply refers to the loss of texts. There are few surviving texts from that period, so it is “dark”. Later the term was re-branded to mean “bad time when no new science was done” but that’s a viewpoint that doesn’t fit the facts.
Source (a very enjoyable read at that!): https://going-medieval.com/2017/05/26/theres-no-such-thing-a...
- cptskippy 5 years agoHis point is that most Western history lessons completely ignore everything but Western Europe during that time frame and present a view of history that nothing was happening globally of any importance.
That really was my experience growing up in Western education. My understanding was that history focused on the important things and it wasn't until much later in life that I learned there was a lot happening globally after the fall of the Roman empire before the European renaissance.
After the USA was established, US history lessons completely ignore the rest of the globe until the early 20th century. I only learned yesterday that Italy wasn't a country until 1861 and I am almost 40.
- novacole 5 years agoYes, but Rome isn’t Western Europe. So western Europe’s entire history is a “dark age” before the Age of Enlightenment.
(Edit: incorrectly said renaissance instead of Age of Enlightenment... the renaissance wasn’t Western European either)
- kennywinker 5 years ago
- caiocaiocaio 5 years agoThat's like saying the Tang or Song eras didn't exist because they don't apply to Western Europe.
- notinpersia 5 years agoWrong on Algebra’s origin. Often people will say Persia but it was in Ancient Greece and Baghdad. And the latter is not Persia and was certainly not under Persian occupation during the time of Alkhawarizmi (who is also credited for the invention of the algorithm or at least it was named after him.) The original title of his book that coined the term Algebra is Al Jabr wal Muqabala (casting and equation)
Just Google it:
where was algebra invented?
https://www.google.com/search?q=who.invented+algebra&ie=UTF-...
- shademaan 5 years agoI mean the first result of that search for me says it was created in Baghdad, but by a Persian mathematician
- 5 years ago
- 5 years ago
- shademaan 5 years ago
- ominous 5 years agoIn what way does the characterization of an European period dismiss historical periods elsewhere?
- theworld572 5 years agoIt doesn't, some people just like to get offended by things.
- theworld572 5 years ago
- ralfd 5 years agoSlatestarcodex has a good roundup of different arguments and metrics (world lead production):
https://slatestarcodex.com/2017/10/15/were-there-dark-ages/
> Although I sympathize with the feelings behind both positions, I say the Dark Ages happened. I think the best evidence we have suggests the fall of Rome (and the period just before) was associated with several centuries of economic and demographic decline, only reaching back to their classical level around 1000 AD. I think it was also associated with a broader intellectual and infrastructure decline, which in some specific ways and some specific fields didn’t reach back up to its Roman level until the Renaissance. I think that common sense – the sense you get when you treat the question of the Dark Age the same as any other question, and try to avoid isolated demands for rigor – says that qualifies for the phrase “Dark Age”.
- 5 years ago
- steve19 5 years ago
- KON_Air 5 years agoI "belivie" it is effect of cumulative knowledge from all their trade partners, who when put together is pretty much everyone on the planet at the time, since they were physically at the center of trade routes.
- metastew 5 years agoPythagoras could be the reason why. He founded a school(?) and many famous philosophers and mathematicians of that time period were offshoots from that school, but that's based on a hazy recollection of my teenage interests in ancient Greek history.
- novaRom 5 years ago> We did have a dark age ... which likewise produced little (not none) new math.
Wrong! If you mean times between 500 and 1200: how about arabs, iranians, indians, chinese? Algebra, Negative numbers, 0123456789 system of writing?
- gingabriska 5 years ago>Romans after all, which likewise produced little (not none) new math.
They had Archimedes of Syracuse
- emiliobumachar 5 years agoArchimedes was Greek, the Romans killed him.
- gingabriska 5 years agoHe was killed in an error tho but lived in Roman Empire.
Many Greeks were part of Roman empire, what difference does it make?
- gingabriska 5 years ago
- gingabriska 5 years agoI'd love to know why I got downvoted.
- emiliobumachar 5 years ago
- sumitviii 5 years agoOr maybe its far too soon for us to say if the West (or the Greeks who you guys almost worship as a culture) has produced more than 1 or 2 great mathematicians?
Maybe the peoples of the future will only consider one particular mathematician as the relevant one? Maybe like Turing, because most likely computers will become a greater part of the world at large? Maybe we see programmers the way people used to see scribes some time back?
- Godel_unicode 5 years agoHard to believe that, if you were to do the absurd reductionist exercise of crediting math to one person, it would be anyone but Gauss.
- Godel_unicode 5 years ago
- crooked-v 5 years ago
- riazrizvi 5 years ago> "There was once a workman who made a glass cup that was unbreakable. So he was given an audience of the Emperor with his invention; he made Caesar give it back to him and then threw it on the floor. Caesar was as frightened as could be. But the man picked up his cup from the ground: it was dented like a bronze bowl; then he took a little hammer out of his pocket and made the cup quite sound again without any trouble. After doing this he thought he had himself seated on the throne of Jupiter, especially when Caesar said to him: 'Does anyone else know how to blow glass like this?' Just see what happened. He said not, and then Caesar had him beheaded. Why? Because if his invention were generally known we should treat gold like dirt. " (Satyricon 51)
This apocryphal story on economic incentives vs progressive incentives is as relevant today as it was 2000 years ago.
- ZhuanXia 5 years agoThe rise of technology was not so much the birth of new capacities, but the removal of old constraints.
China, despite a much larger and more educated population, did not spark the industrial revolution. Their feedback loops were too stable, their elites too competent.
From the perspective of the old power hierarchy, the industrial revolution was a disaster.
The nobility floated on that great cruel ocean first charted by Malthus, an ocean which began to boil.
- toasterlovin 5 years agoHow much of the Chinese/Japanese vs Western Europe dichotomy in term of technological development do you think is due to geography (Europe has been fractured, politically, for all of history, mostly due to geography, I think, whereas China and Japan have both been comparatively unified and stable for thousands of years). My thinking is that this has a lot to do with how European elites were not able to prevent accumulation of new technology and ideas, whereas Chinese and Japanese elites were (and did).
And then I guess a follow up question would be: do you have an opinion on why the scientific revolution happened in Western Europe and not in the Mediterranean, which is similarly fractured, but also better situated for exchange of technology and ideas (being connected to Asia and Western Europe).
- fiblye 5 years agoHow did geography have an effect here? I don't see what you mean.
And China hasn't really had too much stability. It's always been full of revolutions, competing empires, dynastic changes, warring states, shifts in power, changes in ethnic ruling class, and so on. Go through a list of deadliest wars and revolutions and a good chunk of them are in what is today China.
- m_mueller 5 years agoYour reasoning is actually an argument for why Japan developed like Europe, and that's indeed largely what happened. Have a read on sengoku- and meiji period. Japan's trajectory was very different from China's. What you probably mean is the 250ish year stable edo period under the Tokugawa warlord control when the emperor was stripped of power.
- dredmorbius 5 years agoThe general form of this question, or at least one version of it ("why did the Industrial Revolution occur in England and not in China, which had developed a vastly larger set of technologies far earlier") is known as the Needham Question, after sinologist Joseph Needham, author of Science and Civilisation in China, an epic 30+ volume work covering Chinese invention and technology, begun in 1954 and still in process. (Needham himself died in the 1990s.) There's a fascinating Wikipedia article on the topic, and if you can find a copy of the completed volumes (many college/university libraries have it), it's a treat.
The general question of the how, why, and when of the Industrial Revolution has fascinated historians, technologists, and economists for ages. Karl Polanyi's The Great Transformation, Gregory Clark's A Farewell to Alms,[1] and numerous other works address this.
Geographic determinism has become tremendously unpopular among historians, though elements of it carry weight with me. Of China and Japan vs. Europe and Britain, there are several factors:
- Political unity vs. disunity, as you note.
- Crops. Wheat is suitable to individual, independent farming. Rice requires community coordination.
- Hydrology. The Chinese empire effectively started as a large civil water works management bureaucracy. Outside Egypt and Rome's aqueducts, there was no similarly-scoped coordination in the West.
- Watersheds. Europe's rivers diverge from the interior, China's flow in parallel to relatively proximate mouths. Political boundaries in Europe have typically conformed reasonably well to watersheds, though allied / opposed alignments have changed with time. Even today, many county-level jurisdictions correspond to local watersheds. And in both China and Europe, virtually all heavy transport until modern times was along rivers or canals, if not sea or lakes.
- While Britain and Japan are both large islands near continental empires, the geology is utterly different: sedimentary with vast coal deposits, and volcanic with virtually no fossil fuels. While each island was tremendously politically stable, resistant to invasions, England could fuel growth of iron, glass, and steam industries, Japan could not. England was generally relatively wealthy, Japan was one of the poorest countries prior to industrialisation.
- China has long been politically unified (if subject to occasional invasions), Europe has long been politically fractured. China could shut down innovation and foreign trade. No such global policies were possible in Europe.
Within Europe, the distribution of coal is almost wholly in the north: Wales, England, a tiny patch in northern Spain, some in France, and heavy deposits in Germany and Poland. Southern Germany is very fuel-poor, excepting petroleum (not very handy in pre-industrial times) in Silesia, Romania, and Baku (Russia). Coal fueled metalurgy, glassmaking, and eventually steam power in England.
England's flat terrain and ready access to the sea (no part of Great Britain is more than 60 miles from the coast) made transport of the bulky fuel by ship viable. Overland transport wasn't an option -- firewood fuel locally gathered was far more attractive. A similar situation existed in the US where coal didn't overtake wood as a fuel until the 1880s. Rail transport finally made hauling coal from mountain-based mines in Apallachia possible, but benefited greatly from advances in steelmaking (Bessemer process, 1860s), allowing stronger, less fracture-prone rails, and stronger, more powerful locomotives. Rail is effectively canals-on-land, the first truly viable overland freight tansport mode.
There are many other factors, there's tremendous dispute over all of this, and as I've hinted, there's a large literature. I obviously find the geological argument at least plausible in many regards. Given the lack of testability, final adjudication of the question is unlikely.
________________________________
Notes:
1. Clark teaches a course at UC Davis on economic history before the Industrial Revolution, which touches somewhat on this (the principle focus is Europe). A corrected playlist for the YouTube lectures, in proper order, is here: https://pastebin.com/raw/bgKkGyjt
- wavefunction 5 years agoWere China and Japan really as peaceful as is sometimes stated? Just looking at a timeline of Chinese historical events (and probably by no means exhaustive) I see rebellions and invasions and peasant army uprisings for thousands of years: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_Chinese_history
- marcosdumay 5 years ago> do you have an opinion on why the scientific revolution happened in Western Europe and not in the Mediterranean, which is similarly fractured, but also better situated for exchange of technology and ideas
Not the GP, but I think this one was very clearly caused by the English Revolution protecting people with weird ideas.
A large part of the early English intelligentsia was composed of people fleeing from persecution in Italy.
- fiblye 5 years ago
- toasterlovin 5 years ago
- dredmorbius 5 years agoThe resistance to technological innovations is a very well-established human practice. I've shared Bernhard J. Stern's "Resistances to the Adoption of Technological Innovations" (1935) multiple times -- it's because I find it highly illuminating and well worth reading.
Original: https://archive.org/details/technologicaltre1937unitrich/pag... (faint copy)
Re-typed / markdown: https://pastebin.com/raw/Bapu75is (updated and corrected from April, 2019 version.)
- ZhuanXia 5 years ago
- WalterBright 5 years agoI suspect the roman numeral system played a bigger role in retarding roman mathematics than the reddit postings suggest.
After all, it's fairly well known that the characteristics of a particular programming language have a strong influence on the way the language is used. (For instance, people don't do OOP or FP using C.)
- jacobolus 5 years agoRoman numerals are profoundly misunderstood by most people today, whose main knowledge about them is that various authority figures use them as an example of an awkward and cumbersome precursor to Hindu–Arabic numerals, backed up by a slight bit of personal experience learning to encode/decode Roman numerals, which is difficult because nobody today has any substantial amount of practice at it.
Roman numerals are a recording tool, not a calculating tool. Romans did calculations using pebbles or other counters on a counting board. Roman numerals are just a way of recording the state of a counting board before/after performing some algorithm. The goal of them is to be as direct and faithful a record of the counting board state as possible.
- WalterBright 5 years ago> Romans did calculations using pebbles or other counters on a counting board.
I think you just made my point :-)
Have fun doing long division that way.
- jacobolus 5 years agoYou can do long division just fine on a counting board, though it is unclear if people had developed something like the modern elementary school division algorithm 2000+ years ago.
We don’t really know much about people’s calculation algorithms, because they were an oral tradition not written down, and only a very small number of counting boards (e.g. made of marble) survived; others were presumably made of leather, wood, cloth, lines scratched in the dirt, ....
Japanese soroban experts handily beat westerners at doing division, in both speed and accuracy. There is no reason to believe that calculation experts of the ancient world would not have been comparably competent.
- ghayes 5 years agoWouldn’t a slide-rule be a similar modern day approach?
- jacobolus 5 years ago
- yjftsjthsd-h 5 years agoThat's genuinely interesting, but doesn't really change that it's a terrible system for abstract calculations.
- edanm 5 years agoThis is not the first time I've seen you writing about this on HN.
Do you have a good source to read more about this? Both about the distinction you're making (recording vs. calculation) and in general about historical capabilities around them? I'm very interested in learning more!
- DonaldFisk 5 years agoThe Romans also used the abacus for numeric calculations: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman_abacus
- Koshkin 5 years agoYes, and in fact it was a seminal discovery that one can calculate (‘calculus’ means ‘pebble’) by manipulating symbols.
- WalterBright 5 years ago
- umanwizard 5 years agoI'm not convinced. The filesystem layer on Linux and FreeBSD (and probably other OSs too, though I don't have knowledge) is totally object-oriented and written in C.
Gnome/GTK also encourage an object-oriented style in C, via GLib and GObject.
Also, Greek numerals were just as unwieldy as Roman ones (if not worse), and at any rate the Greeks did not use numbers in their mathematics. There's an enormous amount of math you can do without arithmetic and algebra.
(Edit: Saw your username after I posted this and I want to say that I respect you deeply -- I don't know of anyone else who has written a working C++ compiler almost by themselves. And I like D a lot, though have only had a very limited chance to use it professionally.)
- WalterBright 5 years agoI've seen OOP code written in Fortran-10. It blew my mind at the time (I didn't even know it was called OOP until years later).
But only once. And probably by someone who had learned OOP in another language that was built around OOP.
I was in the C business before, during, and after the OOP revolution. I never saw any OOP attempts in C before C++ came along and popularized OOP. Many C programmers didn't want to move to C++, and were determined to make it work in C. It did work, but the result was kinda hideous and terribly fragile (had to throw type safety out the window with all the necessary casting).
> I don't know of anyone else who has written a working C++ compiler almost by themselves
Neither do I :-) Thanks for the kind words.
- williamDafoe 5 years agoO-O is a state of mind and can be implemented in nearly all algorithmic languages, you just need senior people who know WTF they are doing. And I've seen a lot of spaghetti non-o-o code in places like the Google web crawler even though there are class definitions there are no actual objects.
- WalterBright 5 years ago
- saagarjha 5 years ago> For instance, people don't do OOP or FP using C.
Oh, but they do. It’s just that their syntax is awful.
- WalterBright 5 years ago> It’s just that their syntax is awful.
I want to expand a bit on that. In the evolution of D, I have a front row seat on how people use it. It's hard to downplay how relatively minor syntactical changes can have a heavy influence on the programming paradigms people select. It's startling.
People will often say "but I can do that, too, in my favorite language X", and they are correct. But they don't actually do it in X because it's inconvenient.
For example, D has a built-in syntax for unittests. That gets pooh-poohed a lot as being pointless. But it's hard to argue with how transformational that has been for D programs. People expect unittests when writing D code. They didn't before. Unittests often occupy more lines of code than what they tested. The addition of a very minor bit of syntactic sugar changed the whole way people write D code.
- WalterBright 5 years agoYes, I've seen OOP etc. done in C. As you say, it's awful, and so people don't do it. People devise their algorithms and data structures in ways that work smoothly with the language's features.
I'm sure you can compute sine and cosine tables using Roman numerals, too. But it would be so awfully ugly and tedious it's hardly a surprise that few would consider attempting it.
- jacobolus 5 years ago> I'm sure you can compute sine and cosine tables using Roman numerals, too. But it would be so awfully ugly and tedious it's hardly a surprise that few would consider attempting it.
Ptolemy’s table of chords was calculated in base 60 (inherited from Mesopotamians), by probably a Roman citizen living in Egypt and writing in Greek.
It was probably done on some kind of a counting board analogous to the ones used for decimal calculations. Hellenistic mathematicians didn’t do written arithmetic either.
And yes, making such tables is inherently “awfully ugly and tedious”, unless you have an electronic calculator to do it for you.
- jacobolus 5 years ago
- WalterBright 5 years ago
- pochamago 5 years agoThis is what I've heard. Planet Money has a good episode on how the invention of modern book keeping was significantly influenced by the adoption of Arabic numerals during the Renaissance
- Keysh 5 years agoAs someone else pointed out, this does nothing to explain why Roman-era mathematics seems to have stagnated, compared to the Classical and Hellenistic Greek mathematics that preceded it. Greek mathematicians didn't have access to Indian/Arabic numbers either. (And it mistakes "using numbers" for "mathematics" -- much of Greek mathematics was focused on geometry.)
- FranzFerdiNaN 5 years agoRomans valued pragmatic skills over theoretical discussions. They clearly knew their math and the numbering system was not an issue for their engineers. They just didn’t care for philosophizing about the nature of geometry like the Greeks did. They preferred someone inventing an odometer or a way to detect tax fraud.
- 5 years ago
- buu700 5 years agoHow bizarre. I was wondering if you and I had read the same post here; turns out we hadn't.
The original answer that I read yesterday has since been removed by the mods for some reason.
---
[-] ImOuttaThyme66 points 16 hours ago
[Their number system.](http://storyofmathematics.com/roman.html)
Mathematician in studying here with a side hobby of history. Sources are included throughout.
You may recall from elementary school or personal perusing of Roman history books that they had their own numeral system with letters instead of their own numerals, excerpts of the Latin Alphabet. I is 1, C is 100, and so on.
The Romans did decent with their numeral system. They could add, subtract, multiply and divide with their numbers. However, it was missing two very important principles, if that's the right word, that today's Arabic numbers have.
The first is the idea of zero in mathematics. They knew the concept of nothing yes but they had no numeral for the number "zero." So essentially, try doing your own math homework without using the number zero in the one's place, the ten's place, and so on. Now, zero itself didn't come with Arabic numbers but they did come from an ancestor. [Origins of Zero](https://www.smithsonianmag.com/history/origin-number-zero-18...)
Which led to the second problem with Roman numerals. Their numbers do not work on a positional system. Today's Arabic numbers, 0-9 work on a positional system. That is, we have the one's place, go left one digit, ten's place, left again, hundred's place, and so on. Each digit in a number is the base raised to a certain power. And this is what makes addition, subtraction, multiplication and division so easy to do with Arabic numbers, especially with the concept of zero, a placeholder to place in a certain space when a number has no "tens" or "hundreds" or "ones". Like 109. It has 9 ones, and 1 hundred, but no tens. Without zero, we couldn't be able to write it out like this.
A little sidenote here, technically, the Romans did have a positional system. That is, the greater numerals were on the left and the lesser ones were on the right unless they were using two numerals to communicate numbers. So, it's not an explicit positional system like we do today, in which each digit means a certain number, they did order their numbers around based on size.
Now, in fairness, the Romans simplified their numeral system a little over the years by adding two principles, subtraction and multiplication. What the Romans did was that whenever they placed a smaller number before a bigger number, those two numbers communicated a new number entirely by subtracting the smaller from the bigger. So for example, 109, CIX, the IX becomes worth 9 because X (10) - I (1) is IX (9).
Multiplication, to indicate 1000's, they would put a line over the symbol, and that would be the same as multiplying it by a 1000.
Let's do a little Roman math.
For Roman numerals, 109 would be written out as CIX. Great, we get the amount communicated. Let's say we want to add 32 to this number in Roman numerals. 32 in Roman is XXXII.
CIX + XXXII
Immediately, there's a problem. We have to separate the various numbers. So CIX becomes C IX and XXXII becomes XXX II. Now we can add them together by going "Okay, IX plus I makes X, there's an I remaining, X joins the three other Xs so we now get CXXXXI." aka 141 in today's numbers.
Let's imagine as if we did that with our numbers. Let's add 109 and 32 again. Only, we're adding 100 and 9 and 30 and 2. We know 9 + 2 makes 10 and 1. We know 10 and 30 makes 40. We have 1 and 100 remaining, there's nothing else to add them together so they stay like that. The resulting number becomes 100 and 40 and 1. Exhausting.
So, addition is possible. Subtraction is also possible. You have to go through the entire grouping of bases to do it but it is possible. Multiplication is somewhat possible but very iffy, having to do all those grouping of bases manually.
Division. Division was the hell of the Roman numeral system. The Romans did not have decimals. They had fractions but they did it in duodecimal form, that is, 12ths. They did not have a 1/10th. There was no talking about that explicitly, they preferred to do everything in 12ths. Now, this makes sense, 12 has many factors compared to 10. You can divide 12 by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12 itself whereas you can only divide 10 into 1, 2, 5, and 10. There are plenty of people who believe we should move to a duodecimal system. Then again, the French attempted installing a decimal system for time during the French Revolution. Maybe not all ideas are popular.
Either way, Romans did not have very explicit fractions. They had the base fractions 1/12 through 12/12, then they continued on from there by dividing them further. Like 1/144 (1/12 * 1/12) or 1/8 (3/12 * 6/12). More information on Roman fractions can be found [here](http://dmaher.org/Publications/romanarithmetic.pdf). Another side fact of their fractions was that they always named them as fractions of something, such as 1/12 of as, which was a currency. Never 1/12 by itself.
So, now that we've gone through the clusterfuck that is Roman numerology, we can pretty much understand why they didn't advance the mathematics field too much. It was functional for their time. The Romans still did many grand engineering feats that were no doubt developed from this number system. However, when it came to further mathematics such as calculus, which would finally be found by Newton and Leibniz independent of each other in the mid 17th century, you can't get any further when you don't have a positional system that makes adding/subtracting a lot easier, no numeral for the number 0, and your dividing tactics do not allow you to do decimals very well, especially when your numerals are 1, 5, and then powers of 10. Decimals could be made possible with these numerals yes but it would be insanely difficult to understand and is made so much easier when you assign every basic integer, like zero through nine for instance, their own numeral.
And that's probably why the Romans didn't do very well in mathematical advancement.
- jacobolus 5 years ago
- w8rbt 5 years agoI was under the impression that the Romans were more applied/practical and less theoretical, but I may be wrong. I got that notion from a professor I had years ago who was fond of saying, "The Romans built roads. The Greeks talked about building roads." Has anyone else ever heard that saying?
- riffraff 5 years agoI've heard "Greeks were mathematicians, Romans were engineers", which conveys the same concept.
- riffraff 5 years ago
- mjfl 5 years agoThey probably innovated in math, in some form of risk modeling or something, but no single fancy intellectual wrote it all down:
https://priceonomics.com/how-maritime-insurance-built-ancien...
- boomboomsubban 5 years agoI'm not an expert here, but wasn't the development of "zero" a rather monumental leap that was required before you could advance past Greek math? The spread into the Islamic world certainly enabled them to finally push past the Greeks.
- dwheeler 5 years agoIn general the ancient Romans were more interested in mathematical application, instead of abstraction. I think that's true for many other ancient civilizations as well. It's not true that the Romans didn't understand mathematics, they were spectacular engineers. They just focused on something different.
The Romans invented Roman numerals, and it's important to acknowledge that this was a mathematical achievement even though we don't use them as much any more. By putting smaller numbers in front of larger ones, they created a number writing system where you did not have to learn a large number of symbols yet any particular number was short and easy to write. Greek numbers had separate symbols not only for one through nine, but for each of the symbols 10 through 90, which meant you had to learn a lot more symbols for just one through 99.
It's true that doing calculations with Roman numerals is a pain, especially division, but I don't think the Romans thought this was a big deal. Calculations were typically done using an abacus anyway, so you simply needed a simple way to record results.
- strainer 5 years agoConsider the title of this famous Great work wrote later : "The Compendious Book on Calculation by Completion and Balancing"
It has a graceful theme which is perhaps not accidental for mathematical inspiration. The same symbolic methods, being symbolic could have been painted as "domination and sacrificing" but that might not temper a mindset as mathematically conducive as notions of "completion and balancing".
A cultures achievements in different areas could owe substantially to the spectrum of mindsets which it hosts and celebrates.
- sumitviii 5 years ago>but that might not temper a mindset as mathematically conducive as notions of "completion and balancing".
Or maybe what would be considered a mathematically conducive mindset is determined by whose mathematical tradition we are following? Maybe there exists a mathematical mindset out there where "domination and sacrificing" are the requirement for conductivity of ideas?
- sumitviii 5 years ago
- 29athrowaway 5 years agoPaper makes you productive. Romans did not have it.
They had papyrus, parchments and wax tablets, none of them were as convenient or affordable as paper.
The adoption of paper was what really set things in motion in Europe, the Renaissance.
- Bayart 5 years ago>They had papyrus, parchments and wax tablets, none of them were as convenient or affordable as paper.
Papyrus is cheap, easy to make and affordable. It would certainly have been much cheaper than paper, which didn't become any good until substantial industrial and chemical advancements. It was used all over the place. We don't have much left from the Northern Mediterranean because it rots.
Wax tablets were used until the 19th century because it's also cheap and practical.
Velum didn't become mainstream until the Islamic invasion of Egypt cut the supply of papyrus.
>The adoption of paper was what really set things in motion in Europe, the Renaissance.
The idea that there was a Renaissance at all is dubious. Paper was certainly a step up from velum. But It would have been much better for everyone if we could just have used papyrus continuously.
- 29athrowaway 5 years agoPaper is thin, light, durable... you can make books from it and transport them easily. It can be manufactured from materials available in abundance in Europe.
A book made of wax tablets, or velum is not as good. I don't imagine vast libraries and universities running on books made of wax tablets or velum.
With respect to Papyrus, I agree. The Great Library of Alexandria was all papyrus. It can be produced at scale. But Europeans had to import it from far, far away.
- 29athrowaway 5 years ago
- yesenadam 5 years agoPaper - yet another Chinese invention, about 100AD, along with movable type printing, about 1000AD. With gunpowder and compass, two more Chinese inventions, Europeans navigated and conquered the world..
- 5 years ago
- 29athrowaway 5 years agoAnd technology and animals from the fertile crescent, efficient crops from the Americas, African slaves and significant military help from local groups.
A lot of merit to share.
- 5 years ago
- Bayart 5 years ago
- Gatsky 5 years agoMakes you wonder what will be said for our era in 500 years time...
- markholmes 5 years agoDoes it? We visited the moon and created the internet in the span of one generation. We are arguably in the most innovative scientific period in our history.
- fortran77 5 years agoProbably the discovery of solid state devices and the invention of the digital computer is more important than the "Internet"
- dkersten 5 years agoWe will be remembered for our most important achievement: bringing high speed access to cat pictures to the masses.
- dkersten 5 years ago
- HarryHirsch 5 years agoWe are selling ads and moving money from one desk onto another instead of addressing antibiotic resistance and climate change.
- derp_dee_derp 5 years agoYou lack serious historical context.
We went fromom electricity to flight to nuclear to space flight to the internet in less than 150 years.
Its been less than 100 years since antibiotics were invented, so, sorry we aren't addressing antibiotic resistance at a fast enough pace for you.
Hope you don't mind all those vaccines that are keeping you healthy and providing here immunity: they've only been around for about 130 years.
It's the most innovative time in human history, despite your negativity.
- derp_dee_derp 5 years ago
- Gatsky 5 years agoYes, I wasn’t trying to be disparaging.
Interesting though you cite mainly engineering achievements, I had a similar feeling that we are in a phase of engineering/materials advancements, particularly sub-microscale in the post-WW2 period. But having said that, technological advances of this kind tend to end up as historical footnotes, no matter how amazing they seem at the time.
I think vaccines and antibiotics are probably our era’s truly great technological advance that kids will still learn about post 26th century. But quantum mechanics and relativity are really our Pythagoras’ theorem equivalents, and will stay in textbooks for a very, very long time.
- fortran77 5 years ago
- 5 years ago
- markholmes 5 years ago
- oneepic 5 years agoO/T: One real answer, and multiple bot posts, including one about removing another real person's comment. As a person who doesn't read much Reddit, it leaves a really strange impression.
Anyway, the top answer was still a cool read.
- dredmorbius 5 years agoAs others have noted: AskHistorians is one of the most aggressively- and well-moderated forums on Reddit.
Answers must be accurate, researched, supported, and factual. Generally, "scholarly". It's not uncommon to find posts with a thousand or more votes, and 100s of comments, all removed. The mods are looking for good answers. As are most of the readers.
The result may be frustrating for commenters, but that's really not the point.
I actually had an opportunity to answer on a subject which I've some familiarity last week, and got mention in the weekly wrap-up for it, which was kind of nice. A bit more than I deserved, really.
(I was talking trash ... but at least that was the topic.)
- umanwizard 5 years agoThis is typical of /r/AskHistorians , not Reddit as a whole.
They have an explicit policy of removing any amateurish or unsourced answers, in order to keep quality high.
- msla 5 years agoAnd they still get things drastically wrong sometimes:
https://web.archive.org/web/20190825021639/https://old.reddi...
- Judgmentality 5 years agoDoesn't that imply that the rest of reddit which is less heavily moderated has more low quality comments?
- umanwizard 5 years agoYes, and IMO it really does.
- mdorazio 5 years agoYes.
- umanwizard 5 years ago
- msla 5 years ago
- scarejunba 5 years agoIt's a "serious" subreddit. Unlike HN (or many other subreddits), where you can say something completely incorrect and be upvoted by the army of uninformed people, /r/askhistorians specifically allows only well-sourced posts.
- Chathamization 5 years agoIt's not uncommon to see incorrect answers highly upvoted on AskHistorians - even ones from flaired users. That's one of the problems with the sub - though it's better than most Reddit subs, it's still far below the quality that most of its users and moderators believe it to be. Like with Wikipedia, you need to be skeptical of claims and actually look at the sources.
- HoveringOrb 5 years agoBut mostly, it's a graveyard of unanswered questions.
- _emacsomancer_ 5 years agoAnd so fairly representative of the real world.
- _emacsomancer_ 5 years ago
- Chathamization 5 years ago
- dredmorbius 5 years ago
- LeonB 5 years agoYeh, what have the Romans ever done for us?
- williamDafoe 5 years agoI bet it's a bitch to learn addition or multiplication using Roman numerals!
- ithkuil 5 years agoYou might find this interesting:
- ithkuil 5 years ago
- fortran77 5 years agoWe still use their numbering system today, in prefaces and clocks!
- jackcosgrove 5 years agoAnd SuperBowls.
- jackcosgrove 5 years ago
- known 5 years agoThe Arabic countries led by the Muslims were the most advanced scientists/engineers in the world, until they let the religious crazies take over. J https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_science_and_engine...
- Sag0Sag0 5 years agoI just have to object.
Early science throughout the world came about because of religion, not despite it. Early Muslim proto scientists like Ibn Sina and Ibn Khaldun explicitly did their science through religion and were heavily involved the religious politics of the day. This was also true also of early scientists in europe like Issac Newton.
Also that statement implicitly kinda carries the idea that europeans took over role of the "advancers of science" due to their tolerance and secularism. That was certainly not the case, european christianity in the 16th and 17th centuries was not in any way tolerant/moderate.
Similarly even if we agree that a decline occurred there are a myriad of other factors that could potentially cause a drop in scientific output such as the various consequences of war, the policies of the Ottoman empire, a lack of the urbanisation that occurred in China and Europe etc.
- empath75 5 years agoThe Pythagoreans were also a religious group, as well as the platonists who followed them.
- empath75 5 years ago
- sumitviii 5 years agoMaybe its like a going-under for them as a civilization?
- Sag0Sag0 5 years ago